Though it is the case that OUR State and OUR police has historically acted against the gay community. And the State is funded by the taxpayer. If the State has acted to oppress or even to act with prejudice then is it wrong to ask that the public who support (and have supported this State) pay to remedy this situation?I mean, if you did something wrong in the past then you would be responsible for putting the situation right or apologise, etc. The same can be applied to a public who were complicit or passive in allowing the State to oppress.
It's a common argument that has some merit in my opinion. As this is not a GAY day but a day AGAINST HOMOPHOBIA
Or even farther back in time, gay people were actively hounded by the police, spied on, or the subject of homophobic arrests by police.
If the law of the land 20 years ago was that certain acts between men were unlawful, how can the police be accused of homophobic arrests? Surely the finger should point at the legislator/MHKs of the day?